I am learning the BS model from the Internet. While the fact that the delta of the ATM call option is approximately 0.5 looks intuitive for me, I have difficulty understanding why it is slightly larger than 0.5 in an intuitive way. From the formula, it is pretty clear that before maturity, d1 is larger than 0 so that N(d1) is larger than 0.5. But how to interpret this without the formula? I have tried searching this on Google, but those answers don't align well.