Basis point per day (volatility)

  • Thread starter Thread starter mazza
  • Start date Start date
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3/26/09
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I have been using the formula of

normalized (annual) vol / sqrt(252) to calculate basis points per day breakeven.

I have noticed that many people then multiply by 80% or sqrt(2/pi)

The only explanation I can find is the sum of the basis points per day * days to expiration is greater than the total cost, and it is approx 80% of this cost.

Any insight into this?
 
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