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- 9/16/09
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I am trying to compute the downside deviation for a security according to Sortino and Satchell's book, Managing Downside Risk in Financial Markets (ISBN 0750648635). It is defined as:
(\sqrt{\int_{-\infty}^t(t-r)^2f(r) \, \mathrm{d}r)
Where t is the desired return, and f(r) is a Log-normal distribution using three parameters (\mu, \sigma, \tau). According to the books terminology, (\tau) is called the extreme value, and in the example provided on p 55, it is stated that
Now it stated that you move 4 standard deviations further from the mean, but in the example it seems that they are moving it 7 standard deviations from the mean. Is that an error in the book, or is there a calculation that I am not seeing here. Wouldn't that calculation be (−15%) − (4)(8%) = −57%? Does anyone know where I might be going wrong, or should I just assume the calculation is in error, and text is right?
The paramters (\sigma) and (\mu) are calculated from the sample's mean and standard deviation:
(\sigma = \ln\large(\large(\frac{\text{std}(x)}{|\overline{x}-\tau|}\right)^2+1\right))
(\mu = \ln\large(|\overline{x}-\tau|\right)-\sigma^2)
Now take a mean, standard deviation and (\tau) for a given asset: I'm using Example 1 in the table on the same page as the formula for the extreme value (p 55). The mean of the returns 12%, the standard deviation is 22% and the extreme value is -50%. The authors calculate the downside deviation as 10.5%. I have a slight problem though. Since the integral extends to negative infinity, at some point, namely when (x<\tau) the (ln(x-\tau)) in the log-normal distribution is going to become imaginary and the result I get is complex. I have tried defining the log-normal as a piecewise, and I have also tried changing the integral to
(\sqrt{\int_{\tau}^t(t-r)^2f(r) \, \mathrm{d}r)
But my result in that case is 2%, much lower than the downside deviation calculated by the authors, 10.5%. Can anyone shed some light on where I'm going wrong?
(\sqrt{\int_{-\infty}^t(t-r)^2f(r) \, \mathrm{d}r)
Where t is the desired return, and f(r) is a Log-normal distribution using three parameters (\mu, \sigma, \tau). According to the books terminology, (\tau) is called the extreme value, and in the example provided on p 55, it is stated that
We estimate [the extreme value] as follows. First, calculate the minimum and the maximum of the sample and take the one closest to the mean. The extreme value is obtained from this value by moving it four standard deviations further from the mean. For example, if the mean, standard deviation, minimum, and maximum of a sample are 12%, 8%, −15%, and 70%, respectively, then the extreme value is (−15%) − (7)(8%) = −71%, since the minimum is closer to the mean than the maximum.
Now it stated that you move 4 standard deviations further from the mean, but in the example it seems that they are moving it 7 standard deviations from the mean. Is that an error in the book, or is there a calculation that I am not seeing here. Wouldn't that calculation be (−15%) − (4)(8%) = −57%? Does anyone know where I might be going wrong, or should I just assume the calculation is in error, and text is right?
The paramters (\sigma) and (\mu) are calculated from the sample's mean and standard deviation:
(\sigma = \ln\large(\large(\frac{\text{std}(x)}{|\overline{x}-\tau|}\right)^2+1\right))
(\mu = \ln\large(|\overline{x}-\tau|\right)-\sigma^2)
Now take a mean, standard deviation and (\tau) for a given asset: I'm using Example 1 in the table on the same page as the formula for the extreme value (p 55). The mean of the returns 12%, the standard deviation is 22% and the extreme value is -50%. The authors calculate the downside deviation as 10.5%. I have a slight problem though. Since the integral extends to negative infinity, at some point, namely when (x<\tau) the (ln(x-\tau)) in the log-normal distribution is going to become imaginary and the result I get is complex. I have tried defining the log-normal as a piecewise, and I have also tried changing the integral to
(\sqrt{\int_{\tau}^t(t-r)^2f(r) \, \mathrm{d}r)
But my result in that case is 2%, much lower than the downside deviation calculated by the authors, 10.5%. Can anyone shed some light on where I'm going wrong?