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Portion of option value attributable to the expected dividend

Joined
3/29/12
Messages
8
Points
11
Hi all,

I'm trying to verify the following true statement with a reference from any proper textbook or academic paper,

"The value of an out-of-the-money option that is a function of the expected dividend payout, immediately before the ex dividend date, is effectively zero."

This is a logical and true statement. Could someone point me to a phrase or page in "Options, Futures, and Other Derivatives", "The Mathematics of Financial Derivatives", or any other well-known textbook/paper in our field that could verify this claim?

Thanks a lot.
 
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