Hello everyone,
I've recently constructed a zero-cost long-short portfolio based on the Quality Minus Junk (QMJ) factor. As I move forward with evaluating its performance, I've encountered a query regarding the calculation of the Sharpe Ratio for this portfolio.
Traditionally, the Sharpe Ratio is calculated as the difference between the portfolio return and the risk-free rate, divided by the standard deviation of the portfolio's excess returns. My question pertains to whether the risk-free rate should be subtracted from the QMJ factor returns in the numerator of this formula.
Given the nature of a zero-cost long-short portfolio like the QMJ, I'm uncertain if subtracting the risk-free rate makes sense in this context.
Could someone provide insights or guidance on how to appropriately calculate the Sharpe Ratio for a portfolio based on the QMJ factor?
Thank you in advance for your insights.
I've recently constructed a zero-cost long-short portfolio based on the Quality Minus Junk (QMJ) factor. As I move forward with evaluating its performance, I've encountered a query regarding the calculation of the Sharpe Ratio for this portfolio.
Traditionally, the Sharpe Ratio is calculated as the difference between the portfolio return and the risk-free rate, divided by the standard deviation of the portfolio's excess returns. My question pertains to whether the risk-free rate should be subtracted from the QMJ factor returns in the numerator of this formula.
Given the nature of a zero-cost long-short portfolio like the QMJ, I'm uncertain if subtracting the risk-free rate makes sense in this context.
Could someone provide insights or guidance on how to appropriately calculate the Sharpe Ratio for a portfolio based on the QMJ factor?
Thank you in advance for your insights.