- Joined
- 3/9/17
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- 11
A farmer expects to have 150 thousand kilos of grapefruit juice for sale in 3 months.
However, the farmer is afraid that the spot market price may be very low.
To hedge her risk she’ll use futures contracts.
However, there are no futures contracts for grapefruit juice.
So she will use orange juice futures instead : each contract is for 15k pounds of orange juice & current futures price=118.56 cents per pound.
Standard Deviation of the prices of orange juice & grapefruit juice is 20% & 25% respectively & the correlation coefficient is 0.7.
What is the approximate number of contracts she should buy to minimize the variance of her payoff?
The correct answer is approximately 8. I get '1'. Where am I wrong?
The farmer goes short on y orange juice Futures, so at T she receives y*(F_0 - F_T).
IF she could sell grapefruit juice at time T she would receive a profit of G_T for example.
We want to minimize the difference between these two cash flows.
So we will minimize the variance of y*(F_0 - F_T) -G_T.
The variance of this is y^2 * Var (F_0 - F_T) + Var (G_T) - 2y Cov( F_0 - F_T, -G_T).
This is equal to y^2 * Var(F_T) + Var(G_T) - 2y Cov ( F_T , G_T).
We want to minimize so we take the derivative (with respect to y) to be equal to zero.
So 2y Var(F_T) - 2 Cov (F_T, G_T) =0.
So y Var(F_T) - Cov (F_T, G_T) =0.
So y = Cov (F_T, G_T) / Var(F_T) (1)
We are told the standard deviation of the prices of orange juice &grape fruit juice is 20% and 25%, respectively.
At time T, the price of orange juice is equal to its futures price. Ie S_T = F_T. So we have Var(S_T) = Var(F_T). And we know Var(S_T) = 0.2^2= 0.04. And so Var(F_T) = 0.04.
We also know that the correlation coefficient is 0.7.
The correlation coefficient is equal to Covariance(F_T,S_T) divided by the product of the standard deviations. So Cov(F_T , G_T) / (0.2*0.25) = 0.7. So Cov(F_T,G_T)= 0.7* 0.2 *0.25 = 0.035.
So (1) should give y = 0.035 / 0.04 = 0.875, And this is rounded to 1.
What is my mistake?
However, the farmer is afraid that the spot market price may be very low.
To hedge her risk she’ll use futures contracts.
However, there are no futures contracts for grapefruit juice.
So she will use orange juice futures instead : each contract is for 15k pounds of orange juice & current futures price=118.56 cents per pound.
Standard Deviation of the prices of orange juice & grapefruit juice is 20% & 25% respectively & the correlation coefficient is 0.7.
What is the approximate number of contracts she should buy to minimize the variance of her payoff?
The correct answer is approximately 8. I get '1'. Where am I wrong?
The farmer goes short on y orange juice Futures, so at T she receives y*(F_0 - F_T).
IF she could sell grapefruit juice at time T she would receive a profit of G_T for example.
We want to minimize the difference between these two cash flows.
So we will minimize the variance of y*(F_0 - F_T) -G_T.
The variance of this is y^2 * Var (F_0 - F_T) + Var (G_T) - 2y Cov( F_0 - F_T, -G_T).
This is equal to y^2 * Var(F_T) + Var(G_T) - 2y Cov ( F_T , G_T).
We want to minimize so we take the derivative (with respect to y) to be equal to zero.
So 2y Var(F_T) - 2 Cov (F_T, G_T) =0.
So y Var(F_T) - Cov (F_T, G_T) =0.
So y = Cov (F_T, G_T) / Var(F_T) (1)
We are told the standard deviation of the prices of orange juice &grape fruit juice is 20% and 25%, respectively.
At time T, the price of orange juice is equal to its futures price. Ie S_T = F_T. So we have Var(S_T) = Var(F_T). And we know Var(S_T) = 0.2^2= 0.04. And so Var(F_T) = 0.04.
We also know that the correlation coefficient is 0.7.
The correlation coefficient is equal to Covariance(F_T,S_T) divided by the product of the standard deviations. So Cov(F_T , G_T) / (0.2*0.25) = 0.7. So Cov(F_T,G_T)= 0.7* 0.2 *0.25 = 0.035.
So (1) should give y = 0.035 / 0.04 = 0.875, And this is rounded to 1.
What is my mistake?