I'm having a hard time wrapping my mind around this problem. I understand perfectly well the general Lagrange multiplier solution offered by financeguy, but given the way this problem is stated, I just don't think it could be the right answer!
The rectangle needs to be large enough to accommodate at least these 2 scenarios:
-- both squares are equal, each with side=sqrt(2)/2
-- one square has a side nearly 1 and the other is very small (for example, x~0.99 and y~0.141)
The 1st scenario implies that one side of the rectangle needs to be at least sqrt(2).
The 2nd implies that the other side needs to be at least 0.99.
How can a rectangle with area=1.2071 satisfy both? Where is the fallacy in my reasoning?
The rectangle needs to be large enough to accommodate at least these 2 scenarios:
-- both squares are equal, each with side=sqrt(2)/2
-- one square has a side nearly 1 and the other is very small (for example, x~0.99 and y~0.141)
The 1st scenario implies that one side of the rectangle needs to be at least sqrt(2).
The 2nd implies that the other side needs to be at least 0.99.
How can a rectangle with area=1.2071 satisfy both? Where is the fallacy in my reasoning?