Call is a half forward?

[CharlesL]

Hi,

Talking about the risk-free rate and its impact on a call's price, I've been told that a call could be seen as a "half forward" (very informal).

Well, I now realize that I don't really understand this statement. Do you see why we could make such an analogy? Why, when the risk free rate r grows, the forward "S_T" (underlying S at time T, ahead of now) rises faster than the discount factor exp(-rT)?

Thanks

Charles