It appears obvious but it is not.Hi satyag,
The issue is which urn you choose for the first stage. Isn't it obvious that the probability of drawing a white ball from urn A in the first stage is less than one-half? First address the question just asked.
Probability of drawing a white ball from U is less than half and it is not same as the probability of picking a white ball from A. Picking a ball from A follows picking 2 balls from U. These are two separate but dependent events. So you have to first establish the potential distribution of balls in A.
I am not arguing about the probability of ATLEAST 1 black ball being more than probability of atleast 1 white ball. But these two scenarios are NOT mutually exclusive combinations. The cases with one black and one white are being counted in computing the probability of both scenarios. Also, this is not relevant to the question as the question asked for a white ball.Just as the probability for urn A to have at least one white ball is .684 (or ..685), the probability of urn A to have at least on black ball is .808, much greater than .684. Does this fact matter?
Once again picking one ball directly from U is very different from picking 2 balls from U and then picking one out of the 2. If you think they are same, think again or read some basic probability.WHAT ABOUT THIS? ----> The fact that two balls were taken from urn U and placed in urn A does not affect the probability of drawing a white ball from urn A. The probability of drawing a white ball from urn A is precisely the same as the probability of drawing a white ball from urn U. Think about it: When you randomly select two balls from urn U and place them in urn A, urn A only acts as a temporary holding place. Now that you randomly choose a ball from urn A you really shouldn't care that this ball comes from urn A, it really comes from urn U. Don't you agree?
Let me simplify the problem for you a little bit. Imagine "U" being evenly distributed. Do you still think picking a white ball from A is 1/2? That is a definite NO! Why? Because A can have more than 1 white ball. The probability of having exactly one white ball in A is 1/2 in which case A and B are similar. But A can also endup having 2 white balls but B cannot.
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Let us reword this situation as a separate problem and as follows.
A has 25% probability that both are black, 50% probability that 1 is black and 1 is white, 25% probability that both are white
B has 1 white and 1 black
Now
1. Tell me which one you are going to pick if you are looking for a white ball
2. Tell me which one you are going to pick if you are looking for a black ball
The answer is A in both cases. This is exactly why I kept emphasizing this part. If you are still not convinced, just try to solve this reworded problem first before attempting the original problem.
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You are very welcome.That is why the issue of FIRST STAGE - which I keep on emphasizing upon - is important. The probability of drawing a white ball from urn A in the first stage is 1000/2280=.439, less than one-half.
Thank you for your responses. Feel free to contribute. I do appreciate your interest.